It is a mistake to conclude, as some have, that ancient people did not know what moral rights were simply because no known ancient language has an expression correctly translatable as "a moral right:" This would be like saying that a person who discovers a wild fruit tree and returns repeatedly to harvest from it and study it has no idea what the fruit is until naming it or learning its name.
Conclusion
Just because ancient languages didn’t have any expression for “moral right” doesn’t mean those ancient people didn’t know what moral rights were.
Evidence
That’d be like saying someone who keeps going back to harvest fruit from an apple tree but doesn’t have an expression for it doesn’t know what it is.
Evaluation
When LSAT unfurls an analogy, we often have to match up piece for piece. We have two different situations here (ancient people not having a word for moral rights / person not having a word for a fruit tree) that are being connected to a similar question: does the ancient person know what moral rights are? Does the fruitpicker know what the fruit tree is?
Goal
It’s hard for a lot of us to hear the missing idea here, so we’d probably just look for something that reinforces the idea that, .