Logical ReasoningDifficulty: Hard

PT114 S4 Q25 Explanation

One reason why European music

A free, expert breakdown of this official LSAT Logical Reasoning question.

TopicsMust be False

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Stimulus

One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

What this question is testing

Must be False

Your task

Break the argument into its conclusion and evidence, then do exactly what the question stem asks with that structure.

Common trap

Answers that sound relevant to the topic but don't connect to the argument's actual reasoning.

Winning move

Predict what a right answer must do, then test each choice against the conclusion-evidence gap.

Reading along? Open the full official question in LawHub — we show a fragment here and keep the reasoning in our own words.

The question
25.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the

Answer choices

  1. Compatible10% picked this

    African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European

    Nothing in here talks about how much impact European music has had in comparison to music from other cultures. We know that Euro music has had "such a strong influence throughout the world", but that still leaves open the possibility that African music has had an even stronger influence.

  2. Compatible6% picked this

    European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of

    The causal factor for European music's global influence that's identified in the first sentence is only labeled as "one reason" European music has a global influence, so it doesn't contradict anything to say that other stuff (militarism) has also played a part.

  3. Compatible2% picked this

    The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer

    We know nothing about Chinese music, so there's no way we could contradict anything about it.

  4. Correct61% picked this

    Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be

    Why this is right

    The first sentence identifies a causal relationship between "original function not a defining force" and "sophisticated achievement". It said that because European music turned its original function into style, not defining force, it is a sophisticated achievement. Dance music can stand independent of dance. Religious music can stand independent of religious music. The music has so much internal coherence that it depends on no frame of reference to get it. And that's one reason why European music is a sophisticated achievement. This answer is saying, "Music that can only be understood in relation to its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music", which contradicts the causal relationship we were told. It's as if the passage said, "One reason why Matt's students do so well on LSAT is that they put in many hours of practice.", and then this correct answer choice said, "Students who spend almost no time practicing for the LSAT tend to be the ones who do most well on the LSAT".

    Skill tested: Must be False · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.

  5. Compatible20% picked this

    Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other

    Nothing in the paragraph dealt with maintaining / losing appeal. We can't contradict something we didn't talk about. We dealt with strong global influence / sophisticated achievement / depends on nothing but itself. And the examples provided didn't involve works of art presented to serve a function other than their original one, just works of art that are no longer defined by their original function.

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