offers no evidence that the individuals queried would have responded differently had they been asked the same questions in
Why this is right
"Offers no evidence" is an uncommon version of "takes for granted / presumes / fails to establish". All of these just mean, the author is assuming X. So is this author assuming that the people who were surveyed would have responded differently had they been asked the same questions in years prior? Yes! His hypothesis commits him to that assumption. If he thinks that as we get older we get less willing to reveal personal finances, then we would assume that had these older people been asked the same survey questions two or three decades prior, they would have been less cagey, less aloof, more willing to answer the questions. If we negated this assumption, it would turn into a big objection: yo, author -- these people would have answered the same way if they had been asked this as a younger version of themselves. In other words, it's not getting older that is making them unwilling to talk about money; they've always been like that. Maybe the culture of Baby Boomers growing up was to never talk about money, so Baby Boomers when they were 20, 30, 40, 50, etc. have always been reluctant to discuss their personal earnings. Thus, the older people in this survey (Boomers) were unwilling to talk money. Meanwhile, Millennials and Gen Z were raised to talk about how unfair it is that they make crappy wages while their corporate overlords plunder a planet in its final throes of civilization before climate change turns us all into water-pirates. So they are happy to talk about money now, and they will continue to be when they're 40, 50, 60. etc. Thus, the younger people in this survey (Millennials and Gen Z) are willing to talk money.
Skill tested: Flaw · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.