Eighteenth-century European

Answer choices

1. A

   Out of Scope Comparison5% picked this

   takes for granted that it is more important for a complete aesthetic theory to account for the beauty of traditional art than for it

   Out of Scope Comparison: "more important" Opposite The author is never ranking importance, and if anything it seems like she considers it equally important that a complete theory would account for traditional as well as 1960s art.

   5%
2. B

   Opposite27% picked this

   presumes, without providing justification, that artists' rebellion in the 1960s against earlier notions of art was not guided by their knowledge

   It actually seems like the author thinks that the 60s artists were "self-consciously" rebelling against earlier notions. Either way, whether they were consciously or unconsciously trying to rebel against the 18th century theory, it wouldn't change the problem the author is addressing: is it possible to have an aesthetic theory that could encompass both the previous art and this new art.

   27%
3. C

   Too Strong: "cannot be applied"4% picked this

   presumes, without providing justification, that an aesthetic theory developed in one part of the world cannot

   The author isn't committing herself to the idea that any aesthetic theory developed in area X can't be applied in area Y. The author is only assuming / stating that the 18th century European aesthetic theory can't be applied to the 1960s art. We don't even know the geographical location of the 1960s art.

   4%
4. D

   Too Strong: "the only art"4% picked this

   presumes, without providing justification, that art from the 1960s is the only art that cannot be adequately addressed

   If we're wondering to ourselves, "was the author assuming this?", we can use the Negation Test: if we negated this, and there were other forms of art that eluded the 18th century theory, would that hurt the author's argument? No, that would strengthen the idea that we won't be able to find an all-encompassing theory.

   4%
5. E

   Correct60% picked this

   presumes, without providing justification, that eighteenth-century European aesthetics is as encompassing as an aesthetic

   Why this is right

   Our author fails to consider that we could just make a new aesthetic theory that is wide enough to encompass the 1960s art as well. Thus, she assumes we can't make a wider theory. She is being defeatist, thinking, "Sigh ... if the 1960s art doesn't fit within that 18th century theory, then I guess we're screwed in terms of hoping to make a complete theory." Hence, she is assuming that the 18th century theory was the closest we were gonna get to having a complete theory.

   Skill tested: Flaw · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.

   60%