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If understanding a (UW → KD) → (UW → UWD) word always involves knowing its dictionary definition, then understanding a word requires understanding the words that occur in that definition.
But clearly there are B → ~KD people—for example, all babies—who do not know the dictionary definitions of some of the words they utter.
Which one of the following statements follows logically from the statements above?
Some babies utter individual words
This assumes that B ↢some↣ ~UW (UW → KD) is true. Since it is not known whether it is true, that babies do not know the dictionary definitions of some of the words they utter does not establish that babies do not understand some of the words that they utter.
37% picked this
Any number of people can
This would be UW → KD implied if it were known that (UW → UWD) is not true.
6% picked this
If some words can be
If some words can be understood without knowing their dictionary definition, then it could be that babies understand some words, but to say that babies do understand some words goes too far.
9% picked this
If it is possible to
This negates the (UW → KD) → (UW → UWD) first statement.
8% picked this
If some babies understand all
Why this is right
Babies do not know the B ↢some↣ ~KD dictionary definitions of some of the words they utter. Babies understand all B → UW of the words they utter. Together, these two statements establish that understanding doesn't require knowing the dictionary definition, because together they would show that babies can understand even though they don't know dictionary definitions.
Skill tested: Must be True · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.
40% picked this
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