it is only among people who have a hereditary predisposition to heart disease that caffeine consumption is positively correlated with
If most of the population has no correlation between A and B, but specific subset of the population does have a positive correlation between A and B, then when you average the whole population, there will still be a positive correlation between A and B. So this strengthens the conclusion. People may feel like it’s an objection, because it’s saying, “The conclusion is true, but only because it’s true for a subsection of the population”. That still mildly strengthens the argument, even more so if that subset (people with a hereditary predisposition to heart disease) is a large segment of the population, which it probably is. It will be watered down by the segment of the population for whom there is no correlation, but there will still be some skewing of the data towards a correlation. Say you had four buckets of Skittles. The five flavors are evenly distributed, so about 20% of the Skittles in each bucket are red. In a fifth bucket, you have like 90% red Skittles, 10% an even mix of the rest. If you combine those five buckets into one huge pool, the % of Skittles that are red will be higher than the normal 20% rate. It won't be anywhere near 90%, but it will still be elevated. There will still be a correlation of red appearing in the population. Similarly, the people with hereditary disease are the bucket of red skittles. A ton of them have a correlation between caffeine and heart disease, and when you combine these hereditary disease people with the rest of the general population (who have no correlation between caffeine and heart disease), you still end up with some statistical lumpiness that makes caffeine drinkers more likely to have heart disease than non-caffeine drinkers.