Household indebtedness, which some theorists regard as causing recession, was high preceding the recent recession, but so was the value of assets owned by households.
Conclusion
The real cause of the recent recession lies elsewhere.
rephrase: household debt did not cause the recession.
Intermediate Conclusion
Most of the household debt belonged to wealthy people.
Evidence (since)
Money is not lent to those without assets.
Evaluate
There's a lot of fluff in between "Admittedly" and "But". Whenever we see, "Admittedly, _____ . However, _____ " , we know that first chunk is just a concession, and once we hit the PIVOT, we're turning back into the author actually making her case.
If we're fighting this author, we have to consider both reasoning moves. First, from premise to Intermediate Conclusion:
Given that money isn't lent to those without assets, How could we argue that most of the debt did not belong to quite affluent people?
We could say ... you don't have to be quite affluent to have assets. Lots of less affluent people still have assets. So maybe money was lent to the lower/middle classes and they accrued most of the household debt.
What about the move from IC to Main Conclusion?
Given that most of the household debt was owned by quite affluent people, How could we argue that household debt was the cause of the recession?
We could say ... those quite affluent people lowered their spending because of their high level of debt, and that reduced spending led to the recession.
Goal
Given how many ways this answer could work, I would focus on our two Anti-Conclusions.
I'd like an answer that helps me argue,
or one that helps me argue, "Household debt was the cause of the recession".