Logical ReasoningDifficulty: Medium

PT114 S1 Q14 Explanation

Thirty years ago, the percentage

A free, expert breakdown of this official LSAT Logical Reasoning question.

TopicsNecessary Assumption

Keep going in LSAT Lab

  • Save & drill this skill build targeted practice sets from questions like this one

  • Video walkthroughs watch every question solved step by step

  • 81 official LSATs as questions, timed sections & full-length tests

Full official LSAT questions are available through LawHub. This page provides LSAT Lab's explanation, strategy, and review tools without republishing the full official question.

Stimulus

Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now. Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

What this question is testing

Necessary Assumption

Your task

Find the assumption the argument requires in order for its conclusion to hold.

Common trap

Answers that would help the argument but aren't strictly required (sufficient, not necessary).

Winning move

Negate each choice — the right one breaks the argument when negated.

Reading along? Open the full official question in LawHub — we show a fragment here and keep the reasoning in our own words.

The question
14.

The argument requires assuming which one of

Answer choices

  1. Too Strong: still would not7% picked this

    If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough

    Since this author is assuming that the causal difference-maker between 30 years ago and now is just having extra money to spend on vacations, she must be thinking that people "didn't have enough money" 30 years ago to take the vacations they would have otherwise wanted to take. If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, would more British people have been able to afford a vacation? Well, it depends on how much less expensive vacations were, naturally. This answer is too strong, because it's saying in all cases of travel being less expensive, all Brits still wouldn't have had enough money to travel.

  2. Out of Scope: travel to Britain0% picked this

    If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to

    The behavior of non-Brits coming to Britain to take their vacation abroad is totally out of scope. The author is only look at Brits and trying to explain their behavior. Non-Brits could only be relevant if they were playing some causal role in keeping Brits from taking vacations abroad 30 years ago or facilitating those vacations nowadays.

  3. Out of Scope: domestic vacations2% picked this

    If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have

    We know this trigger is true: the % of Brits vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago. So we can just ask ourselves if the author was definitely assuming the outcome idea. The author was not committing to any beliefs about domestic vacations, period, let alone a comparison in which British people from 30 years ago (whom this author thinks had LESS money to spend on vacations) spent MORE on domestic vacations.

  4. Correct72% picked this

    If more of the British people of 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more

    Why this is right

    This answer is establishing something necessary for the author's causal explanation to be plausible. If the author's story is that "the reason more Brits travel abroad now is that they have more money to spend on vacations", then the author is implicitly saying, "the reason fewer Brits traveled abroad 30 years ago is that they had less money to spend on vacations". Thus, we would have to think that if they had more money for vacations abroad, more Brits from 30 years ago would have taken such vacations. If we negate this answer it becomes an objections: even if they had had more $ to vacation abroad, they still wouldn't have done so. That suggests that there must be an Alternate Explanation for why a lower % of Brits took vacations abroad. If it wasn't the money, then something other force dissuaded them. If more Brits nowadays are taking these vacations, we wouldn't assume it's because they have more money. We'd think it's because this other factor that was dissuading them has now changed.

    Skill tested: Necessary Assumption · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.

  5. Out of Scope: wealthier19% picked this

    If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now

    The argument is never saying that British people are wealthier now than they were 30 years ago, just that they have more money to spend on vacations. It's possible they have more vacation money because they're wealthier, but there are other possible ways that would come about, so the author doesn't need to assume they're wealthier just because she's thinking they have more vacation money. If we negate this it's saying, "It's possible for British people to be wealthier now but not have more money to spend on vacations now." Even though the second half of that sounds like it would hurt the conclusion, the first part comes out of nowhere. We would object to this argument by saying, "It's possible that a much larger percentage of British people vacation abroad nowadays, but they do not have more money to spend on vacations abroad than before."

Continue the review in LSAT Lab

Save this question, watch the video walkthrough, and drill similar questions in your LSAT Lab account.

LSAT Lab

Turn this review into a targeted study plan.

Save this question, drill more like it, watch the video walkthrough, and track your progress in your LSAT Lab account.

Start practicing free