A certain experimental fungicide causes no harm to garden plants, though only if it is diluted at least to ten parts water to one part fungicide.
Conclusion (thus)
This fungicide, as long as it is sufficiently diluted, provides a means of eliminating powdery mildew from rose plants that involves no risk of harming the plants.
Evidence
This fungicide causes no harm to garden plants, only if it's diluted to at least ten parts water to one part fungicide.
This fungicide is known to be so effective against powdery mildew that it has the capacity to eliminate it completely from rose plants.
Evaluate
It's hard to argue with this conclusion. We'd either be arguing that the fungicide doesn't provide a means of eliminating powdery mildew or that it would involve some risk of harming the rose plants.
But we were told that if the fungicide is diluted to a 1:10 ratio with water then it causes no harm to garden plants. Is a "rose plant" a garden plant? Presumably, but maybe they're testing us on that assumption.
We were also told that the fungicide has the capacity to eliminate powdery mildew completely from rose plants. So how could we argue that this fungicide doesn't provide a means of eliminating powdery mildew?
Goal
We might figure out the tiny possibility for objection, or we might feel stumped (as I'm modeling here).
The correct answer, if negated, should weaken the argument, meaning it should allow us to argue that the fungicide, sufficiently diluted, would either not provide a means of eliminating powdery mildew or would involve some risk of harming the plants.