Logical ReasoningDifficulty: Hard

PT102 S3 Q21 Explanation

Medieval Arabs had manuscripts

A free, expert breakdown of this official LSAT Logical Reasoning question.

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Stimulus

Medieval Arabs had manuscripts of many ancient Greek texts, which were translated into Arabic when there was a demand for them. Medieval Arab philosophers were very interested in Aristotle’s Poetics, an interest that evidently was not shared by medieval Arab poets, because a poet interested in the Poetics would certainly have wanted But Homer was not translated into Arabic until modern times.

What this question is testing

Strengthen

Your task

Find the choice that makes the argument's conclusion more likely to be true.

Common trap

Answers that are consistent with the argument but add no real support, or that strengthen a claim the argument doesn't make.

Winning move

Locate the gap between evidence and conclusion, then pick the choice that closes it.

Reading along? Open the full official question in LawHub — we show a fragment here and keep the reasoning in our own words.

The question
21.

Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the

Answer choices

  1. Correct62% picked this

    A number of medieval Arab translators possessed manuscripts of the Homeric epics in

    Why this is right

    This answer basically provides a Necessary Assumption of the author's storyline. Arabs could only translate the texts they possessed. If they didn't have a copy of Homer's ancient Greek manuscripts, then whether they had interest in Homer or not, they wouldn't have been able to translate Homer. The fact that they possessed manuscripts of Homer but those manuscripts weren't translated until modern times increases the plausibility of the idea that the medieval Arab poets weren't interested in Homer, which in turn increases the plausibility of the conclusion that the medieval Arab poets weren't interested in Aristotle. This is one of those Strengthen correct answers that (because it's providing a Necessary Assumption) is really more about avoiding the opposite. If Arab translators didn't have any manuscripts of Homer, then that would badly weaken the argument. That would allow someone to say that Arab poets were interested in Aristotle's Poetics, and thus interested in Homer, but just had no ability to translate Homer since they didn't have his manuscripts. Since this answer would badly weaken if it weren't true, it strengthens at least somewhat to be told that it is true.

    Skill tested: Strengthen · how this choice captures the argument's function is the move to repeat next time.

  2. Too Weak8% picked this

    Medieval Arabic story cycles, such as the Arabian Nights, are in some ways similar to parts

    Too Weak: in some ways similar Opposite (if anything) You could probably take any book or story in the world and say that it is "in some ways similar to parts" of the Homeric epics. That book you're reading has characters? And a plot? And a setting? Wow, well then it's similar in some ways to parts of the Homeric epics. Also, this answer seems more like it would help someone argue that the Arab poets would have been interested in Homer, which is the opposite of what the author is thinking.

  3. No Impact5% picked this

    In addition to translating from Greek, medieval Arab translators produced Arabic editions of many works originally written in

    Cool fact, (C), but translations from other languages are completely out of scope to this conversation about translating Greek texts by Aristotle and Homer.

  4. Out of Scope: modern Arab poets15% picked this

    Aristotle’ s Poetics has frequently been cited and commented on by

    We don't care what modern Arab poets are interested in. We know that Homer has been translated into Arabic by modern times. This argument is about assessing what medieval Arab poets were into.

  5. Unclear Impact11% picked this

    Aristotle’s Poetics is largely concerned with drama, and dramatic works were written and performed

    This might seem to kind of support the idea that medieval Arab poets wouldn't have had interest in Aristotle's Poetics, if it's largely concerned with drama. For this to strengthen, we'd be assuming that poets were usually not interested in stuff that was largely concerned with drama. But is that a safe assumption? We might be adding on too much there. If philosophers were interested in Poetics, even though it was about drama, then it's very possible that poets might be interested too (poetry seems at least as relevant to drama as philosophy does).

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